When deriving the Jacobian of the reflection transformation in Walter et. al's 2007 paper:
First we have a macrosurface BSDF which is:
$f_{s}(\mathbf{i}, \mathbf{o}, \mathbf{n})=\int\left|\frac{\mathbf{i} \cdot \mathbf{m}}{\mathbf{i} \cdot \mathbf{n}}\right| f_{s}^{m}(\mathbf{i}, \mathbf{o}, \mathbf{m})\left|\frac{\mathbf{o} \cdot \mathbf{m}}{\mathbf{o} \cdot \mathbf{n}}\right| G(\mathbf{i}, \mathbf{o}, \mathbf{m}) D(\mathbf{m}) d \omega_{m}$
Then we need an equation for $f_s^m$, the microsurface BSDF. And the paper gives:
$f_{s}^{m}(\mathbf{i}, \mathbf{o}, \mathbf{m})=\rho \frac{\delta_{\omega_{o}}(\mathbf{s}, \mathbf{o})}{|\mathbf{o} \cdot \mathbf{m}|}$
Then they rewrite it to fit in the macrosurface BSDF by changing the associated measure of the Dirac delta function:
$f_{s}^{m}(\mathbf{i}, \mathbf{o}, \mathbf{m})=\rho(\mathbf{i}, \mathbf{m}) \frac{\delta_{\omega_{m}}(\mathbf{h}(\mathbf{i}, \mathbf{o}), \mathbf{m})}{|\mathbf{o} \cdot \mathbf{m}|}\left\|\frac{\partial \omega_{\mathbf{h}}}{\partial \omega_{\mathbf{0}}}\right\|$.
And my question is, why should the jacobian be a $\left\|\frac{\partial \omega_{\mathbf{h}}}{\partial \omega_{\mathbf{o}}}\right\|$ instead of a $\left\|\frac{\partial \omega_{\mathbf{m}}}{\partial \omega_{\mathbf{o}}}\right\|$? I noticed that the associated mesure changed from $\omega_{\mathbf{o}}$ to $\omega_{\mathbf{m}}$, instead of $\omega_{\mathbf{h}}$.