In relation to this question, in the accepted answer I have a trivial question probably.
W.r.t. the following integral
$$ L_o(x\rightarrow \Theta) = \int_{\Omega_x} f_r(x,\Psi\rightarrow\Theta)L_i(x\leftarrow \Psi) cos(N_x,\Psi)d\omega_{\Psi} $$
in the accepted answer, one of the comments it is stated that $f_r(l,v) = f_r(x,\Psi\rightarrow\Theta)$ and $L_i(l) = L(x\leftarrow \Psi)$ are not correlated. As usual... I wanna understand why... My reference on this subject is this book. In such book the brdf $f_r(l,v)$ is defined as
$$ f_r(x,\Psi \rightarrow \Theta) = \frac{dL(x \rightarrow \Theta)}{dE(x \leftarrow \Psi)} = \frac{dL(x \rightarrow \Theta)}{L(x\leftarrow\Psi)cos(N_x,\Psi) d\omega_\Psi}, $$
From the last equation I can see that the two are actually related, unless there's something I'm missing. Why are they not correlated?
A note about the notation used.
$L(x\rightarrow\Theta)$ : this is the radiance from $x$ toward direction $\Theta$ $f_r(x,\Psi\rightarrow\Theta)$ is the BRDF coming from direction $\Psi$ in $x$ and exiting in direction $\Theta$ $L(x\leftarrow\Psi)$ : radiance from direction $\Psi$ toward $x$