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Why is a Lambertian BRDF normalised by dividing by $\pi$? Since the area of a unit sphere is $4 \pi$, and the area of the half sphere above the surface is $2 \pi$, shouldn't it rather be $1/(2\pi)$?

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I think I got it!

Because $cos(\theta)$ integrates to $\pi$ over the hemisphere (and not $2\pi$). And the incoming light is multiplied by $cos(\theta)$ (and the BRDF).

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